As we have seen a unique (infinite) number sequence is
associated with the polynomial equation (x – 1)n = 0.
For example when n = 3, the sequence relates to the
triangular nos.,
1, 3, 6, 10, 15, 21, 28, 36, …
There is however a fascinating alternative way of obtaining
this general sequence.
So again when (x – 1)n
= 0, each number in the sequence corresponds to
kCn -
1, = k!/{(n – 1)!( k – n + 1)!}, where k = n
– 1, n, n + 1, n + 2, …
Therefore, when the starting value of n = 3, the first number in sequence is 2C2 = 1
And subsequent numbers are 3C2 = 3, 4C2 = 6, 5C2 = 10, …
Thus these successive numbers represent (n – 1) combinations
with respect to 2, 3, 4, 5, … , items respectively.
So when n = 3, successive numbers represent just 2
combinations with respect to 2, 3, 4, 5, …, items respectively.
For the above general series, in the first number cycle of
n, the sum of last (n – 1) digits
= (n + 1)th term – 1
So again, for example when n = 3, the 1st cycle comprises
the 3 numbers 1, 3 and 6 respectively.
And the sum of the last two of these numbers = 9, which is 1
less than the 4th term in the sequence (i.e. 10).
This relationship holds for all values of n.
So for example when n = 4, the unique associated (infinite)
sequence of digits is,
1, 4, 10, 20, 35, 56, 84, …
These now represent 3 combinations of 3, 4, 5, 6, ... items respectively.
Thus, the 1st cycle comprises the 4 numbers 1, 4, 10 and 20. And the sum of the last three of these numbers = 34, which now is
1 less than the 5th number in the sequence (i.e. 35).
∞
∑1/kCn
- 1 = sum of reciprocals of unique digit sequence associated
k = n - 1
with (x – 1)n
So when for example, n = 3 (and n – 1 = 2),
∞
∑1/ kC2 = sum of reciprocals of unique digit
sequence associated
k = 2
with (x – 1)3
with (x – 1)3
= 1/2C2 + 1/3C2 + 1/4C2 + 1/5C2 + …
= 1 + 1/3 + 1/6 + 1/10 + …
= 2
Remarkably when n is prime the {(n + 1)th term – 1} appears to be always divisible by n3 and when n is composite, not divisible by n3
(where p ≥ 5).
Where p = 3, the {(n + 1)th term – 1} i.e. 9, is divisible
by n2 (i.e. 32).
And when p = 2, the {(n + 1)th term – 1} i.e. 2, is
divisible by n (i.e. 2).
In principle this provides a fascinating test for whether a
number is prime.
Thus in general terms, we can compute,
{(2n – 1Cn – 1) – 1}/n3,
to see whether an integer (without remainder) results. Alternatively, we check
to see if n3 is a factor.
So for example to test whether n = 29 is prime, we compute
{57C28
– 1)/293}
And because there is an integer result, 29 is therefore prime.
I have tested for all primes from 5 to 61 (inclusive)
and found no exceptions.
In all these cases for primes, where n3 was
indeed a factor, in no case was a higher power of n a factor.
It would equally appear to be the case that if we continued
on to further cycles - where once again a cycle contains the same number of
terms, as the number in question (n) - that the 1st number of the next cycle
less 1, will again be divisible by n3, where n is prime.
However in some cases this number will also be divisible by
higher powers of n.
For example when n = 5, the first number in the 5th
cycle (i.e. 11th term) is 10626.
Then when we subtract 1, we obtain 10625, which is divisible
by n4 = 625.
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